CA Foundation Maths Question Paper Sep 25 With Solution
Looking for solutions to the CA Foundation Maths Paper Sep 2025 with Answers? You’re in the right place! This blog covers everything you need to know about the CA Foundation Sep 2025 Exam, including detailed solutions and insights to help you excel. We’re here to provide a comprehensive breakdown of the Sep 2025 Maths Paper
CA Foundation Sep 25 Suggested Answer Other Subjects Blogs :
1. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in two rows with 3 persons in each row facing same side. C is sitting in the middle of first row. B is sitting in the left of C. E is also sitting in the middle. A is sitting in the right of E. F is sitting in the right of C. Who is not sitting at one of the ends of any row?
(A) A
(B) E
(C) D
(D) F
Quick layout (both rows face the same side):
Only E is not at an end.
2. A hunter is chasing a deer, by running 200 metres in east direction, turns to his right, runs 100 metres and turns to his right, runs 90 metres. Turning to his left, he runs 50 metres and then turns to left, runs 120 metres. Finally, he turns to left and runs 60 metres. He finds the deer in front of him at 100 metres. In which direction is the hunter standing with respect to the deer now?
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
He ends facing north at (230, –90). The deer is 100 m in front of him, i.e., at (230, 10). So the hunter is south of the deer.
3. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing the centre. A is facing D. C is left of A and right of E. D is between B and E. F is right of A.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) F and C are neighbours.
(B) F is between A and B.
(C) F and A are neighbours.
(D) B is left of D.
Arrangement (clockwise, all face centre):
Final circle: A – C – E – D – B – F (clockwise).
Here, F and C are not neighbours, so (A) is the incorrect statement.
4. Eight friends with names P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting on a bench and facing North. U is sitting between S and V; Q is sitting between W and P. T is third to the left of V; W is third left of R; V is sitting at one of the corners.
Who is sitting immediate right of W?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) T
5. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a hexagonal shape. All the sides of the hexagon so formed are of same length. A is not adjacent to B or C; D is not adjacent to C or E; B and C are adjacent; F is in the middle of D and C.
Which of the following is not a correct neighbour pair?
(A) A and F
(B) D and F
(C) B and E
(D) C and F
Reasoning:
Placing them consistently, the neighbour pairs come out as:
Thus, B and E are not neighbours.
Q.6 Seven persons with names T, B, L, A, P, Z and R are standing in a row, facing East. It is given that T is to the right of R; A is between B and Z, L, who is third to the left of B, is at the end; R is fourth to the right of L. Who is at the immediate right of T?
(A) Z
(B) B
(C) P
(D) R
Fixed placements from clues:
If T were at 7, there’d be no one to his immediate right, but the question asks who that is—so T must be at 6, leaving P at 7.
Hence, the person immediately right of T is P.
Q.7 Ms. X told Ms. Y, “The girl I met yesterday at the market was the youngest daughter of the brother-in-law of my friend’s mother.” How is the girl related to Ms. X’s friend?
(A) Cousin
(B) Daughter
(C) Niece
(D) Aunt
Q.8 There are six members, named as, A, B, C, D, E and F. It is given that E is the brother of A’s husband; F is the mother of E; B is the daughter of D and A and is the granddaughter of C. How is C related to E?
(A) Son
(B) Father
(C) Brother
(D) Grandfather
Q.9 A girl introduced a boy as the son of daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl’s
(A) Father
(B) Son
(C) Uncle
(D) Cousin/Brother
Q.10 A and B are Brothers. C and D are Sisters. A’s son is D’s Brother. How is B related to C?
(A) Father
(B) Brother
(C) Grandfather
(D) Uncle
A & B are brothers. A’s son is D’s brother ⇒ A is parent of D. Since C and D are sisters (same parent(s)), A is also parent of C. Therefore B (A’s brother) is uncle of C.
11. Number of students in a college is an example of
(A) An attribute
(B) A discrete variable
(C) A continuous variable
(D) A constant
12. For manifold classification, this method of presentation of data cannot be recommended:
(A) Textual presentation
(B) Tabular presentation
(C) Bar Diagram
(D) Pie Chart
When many variables or classes are involved, textual form creates confusion and makes comparisons impossible, while tabular or diagrammatic methods are far more effective.
13. The most commonly used distribution is ______ in which the maximum frequency is at the central part and the frequency decreases when one moves away from the central part on either the left side or the right side.
(A) Bell-shaped curve
(B) U-shaped curve
(C) J-shaped curve
(D) Mixed curve
Then decreases again as one moves away on either side
14. It is given that a person named as A is married to B; the person E is a brother of D and the person B is the mother of C whose sister is D. How is D related to A?
(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Daughter
(D) Granddaughter
15. Sampling method which belongs to the category of Mixed sampling is
(A) Systematic Sampling
(B) Simple Random Sampling
(C) Stratified Sampling
(D) Multi-stage Sampling
In systematic sampling, the first unit is chosen randomly (probability-based), but the remaining units are chosen at fixed intervals (rule-based). Hence, it is a mix of probability and non-probability approaches, making it a mixed sampling method.
Q.16 A bar chart can be drawn for the data having numbers on
(A) Students of various disciplines
(B) Persons of different age groups
(C) Sales of a commodity over a year
(D) Temperature recorded during a month
Q.17 An investigator collects information on salaries received by 1000 persons. From this collection, the data on women are extracted. Now the data is called ______ data.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Census
(D) Ordinal
In your case:
Salaries of 1000 persons → collected directly = Primary data.
Then, from this, data on women are extracted. Since this is derived from already collected primary data, for the investigator working on women’s data, it becomes secondary data.
Q.18 Two sales-persons present their numbers of sales per week for a month. An appropriate diagram that can be drawn for this data is ______.
(A) Histogram
(B) Pie chart
(C) Ogive
(D) Adjacent bar chart
Q.19 Which of the followings is not a basic principle of sample survey?
(A) Principle of Inertia
(B) Principle of Optimization
(C) Principle of Large Numbers
(D) Law of Statistical Regularity
The basic principles of sample survey are:
“Principle of Large Numbers” is not one of them. It is often confused with the Law of Large Numbers, but it is not listed as a principle of sample survey in the syllabus.
Q.20 After a singing competition on a live TV show, the winner is selected according to the number of likes each candidate has received on a messaging app. This method of data collection is known as ______ sampling.
(A) Random
(B) Probabilistic
(C) Purposive
(D) Multi-Stage
In purposive (judgement) sampling, the choice of sample depends on subjective judgment, interests, or preferences of individuals rather than random probability methods
Here, the winner is selected based on likes given by the audience on a messaging app. This is not random or probabilistic; instead, it depends on the discretion and preferences of the voters. Therefore, the method falls under purposive sampling.
21. If there are two groups with 10 and 12 observations and harmonic mean of the two groups are 3 and 5 respectively, then the combined Harmonic mean is
(A) 8.0
(B) 2.0
(C) 3.8
(D) 4.0
Reason:
Formula for combined Harmonic Mean (HM):
HM = (n₁ + n₂) / ( (n₁ / HM₁) + (n₂ / HM₂) )
Here:
n₁ = 10, HM₁ = 3
n₂ = 12, HM₂ = 5
HM = (10 + 12) / (10/3 + 12/5)
HM = 22 / (3.33 + 2.4)
HM = 22 / 5.73 ≈ 3.84
≈ 3.8
22. Best measure of Dispersion for open-end classification is the _____, which does not change with the change of _____.
(A) Quartile Deviation, Scale
(B) Standard Deviation, Scale
(C) Quartile Deviation, Origin
(D) Standard Deviation, Origin
Reason:
Therefore, the best measure for open-ended data is Quartile Deviation, and it remains unchanged with change of Origin.
23. Coefficient of range of 84, 93, 53, 70, 82, 65 is
(A) 28.38
(B) 27.39
(C) 26.75
(D) 29.31
24. Calculate the Harmonic Mean of 1, 1/3, 1/6 and 1/9.
(A) 2.48
(B) 0.21
(C) 0.31
(D) 0.25
Reason:
Formula: HM = n / Σ(1/xᵢ)
Numbers: 1, 1/3, 1/6, 1/9
n = 4
Σ(1/xᵢ) = (1/1) + (1/(1/3)) + (1/(1/6)) + (1/(1/9))
= 1 + 3 + 6 + 9 = 19
HM = 4 / 19 = 0.2105 ≈ 0.21
25. If X and Y are related by 4X + 3Y + 5 = 0 and Mean of X is 10, then the Mean of Y is
(A) –23
(B) –15
(C) –20
(D) 23
Q.26 For a moderately skewed distribution of marks in English for a group of 145 students the mean marks and median marks were found to be 55.10 and 52.40, respectively. The modal marks are
(A) 47
(B) 42
(C) 53.1
(D) 52.2
Q.27 If the sum of ten values is 20 and sum of squares of these values is 80, then the standard deviation is ______.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1/2
(D) 4
Q.28 A data set has first eleven positive multiples of 6. The semi inter-quartile range is ______.
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 36
Q.29 The number of tosses of a coin, that are needed so that the probability of getting at least one head is 0.875, is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Q.30 Two-person X and Y appear in an interview for two vacancies for the same post. The probability of X’s selection is 1/5 and that of Y’s selection is 1/3. The probability that none of them will be selected is
(A) 7/15
(B) 8/15
(C) 9/15
(D) 10/15
Q.31 Find the Coefficient of variation for the following numbers:
7, 5, 9, 3, 6
(A) 33.33
(B) 66.66
(C) 3
(D) 300
Q.32 A set contains seven numbers whose average is 12. The average of four greater numbers is 18 and the average of four smaller numbers is 8. Which of the followings is the value of one of the numbers?
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20
Q.33 Three components A, B and C are manufactured separately and then assembled into a finished product. While producing the three components, it is found that 5 percent of component A, 4 percent of component B and 1 percent of component C are defective. What is the probability that the assembled product is free from defects?
(A) 0.75
(B) 0.8
(C) 0.85
(D) 0.9
Q.34 Two persons are playing a set of matches. The winner of 4 matches is declared as the winner. Any player has 50% chance to win a match. The probability that the game comes to an end at the fourth match is ______.
(A) 5/8
(B) 4/8
(C) 3/8
(D) 1/8
Q.35 The Mode of binomial distribution B(7, 1/3) is
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 7/3
(D) 8/3
Q.36 A number is selected at random from the first 50 natural numbers. What is the probability that it would be either a two-digit prime number or a composite number lying between 5 and 40?
(A) 0.54
(B) 0.48
(C) 0.64
(D) 0.72
37. Some dice with six faces have numbers written from Four to Nine. Two such dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability that the sum of numbers on the two dice would be 14 or less.
(A) 11/18
(B) 13/18
(C) 1/6
(D) 2/9
38. It is given that X has normal distribution with mean zero and standard deviation one. Also given that P[–2 < X < 2] = 0.95, P[–2 < X < –1.5] = 0.045. Find the probability for P[0 < X < 1.5].
(A) 0.63
(B) 0.53
(C) 0.33
(D) 0.43
39. The probability mass function of a distribution is given below in a tabular form:
x |
0 |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
p(x) |
k |
2k + k² |
3k |
2k + k² |
k |
Where k is a non-negative constant. The median of the distribution is
(A) 3k
(B) 2
(C) 2k
(D) 3
40. An emergency room receives an average of 3 patients per hour. What is the probability that exactly 2 patients arrive in an hour?
(Given: e⁰ = 1, e⁻¹ = 0.367, e⁻² = 0.135, e⁻³ = 0.049, e⁻⁴ = 0.018, e⁻⁵ = 0.0067)
(A) 0.22
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.27
(D) 0.25
41. If a binomial distribution has n = 20 and p = 0.3, what is its variance?
(A) 4.2
(B) 5.6
(C) 3.4
(D) 2.9
42. If m + 3y = 10 and 2y + 5n = 25 and regression coefficient of y on x is 0.80, what is the regression coefficient of n on m?
(A) –0.106
(B) 9.375
(C) 0.106
(D) 0.0106
43. If the regression coefficient bᵧₓ is greater than one, then the regression coefficient bₓᵧ
(A) cannot be less than one
(B) cannot be greater than one
(C) can be equal to one
(D) can be equal to zero
44. The sum of squares of the differences between two ranks awarded by two judges on 10 candidates is ____ if the rank correlation coefficient is 0.8.
(A) 44
(B) 55
(C) 66
(D) 33
45. For a group of students, the sum of squares of differences in ranks for Maths and Physics marks are found to be 60, which is 120 times the value of rank correlation coefficient. How many students are there in the group?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 12
Q.46 If two variables move in the same direction i.e. an increase (or decrease) on the part of one variable introduces an increase (or decrease) on the part of the other variable, then the two variables are known to be
(A) Positive correlation
(B) Negative correlation
(C) Zero correlation
(D) Curvilinear correlation
Q.47 Which sampling technique can be used for the construction of Index numbers?
(A) Systematic sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Cluster sampling
(D) Random sampling
Q.48 From the year 2015 to 2025, Consumer price index increased from 125 to 196. During this period, salary of the employees as per 7th pay commission recommendations was revised from ₹ 25,000 to ₹ 37,250. In real terms, an employee should get following amount as an additional amount to maintain his previous standard of living:
(A) ₹ 1,965
(B) ₹ 1,950
(C) ₹ 1,945
(D) ₹ 14,200
Q.49 If the consumer price index number is 750, then the purchasing power of one rupee is ______.
(A) 12.5 paise
(B) 15 paise
(C) 13.3 paise
(D) 16.5 paise
Q.50 Two indices that is current on base and base on current should be reciprocals of each other in
(A) Unit test
(B) Time reversal test
(C) Circular test
(D) Average weighted test
Q.51 If Σp₀q₀ = 160.7 and Σp₁q₀ = 178.6, then the cost of living index is
(A) 111.14
(B) 93.10
(C) 104.71
(D) 105.7
Q.52 The value of log√a ( √a√a√a√a√a ) is ______.
(A) 7/8
(B) 15/16
(C) 15/8
(D) 3/4
Q.53 The ratio ½√35 : ⅓√140 is equal to the ratio ______.
(A) 4 : 3
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 5 : 4
(D) 3 : 4
Q.54 If α and β are the roots of the equation x² – x – 6 = 0, then the value of α³ + β³ + α² + β² + α + β is equal to ______.
(A) 35
(B) 29
(C) 31
(D) 33
Q.55 The value of x in logₓ(4) + logₓ(16) + logₓ(64) = 12 is ______.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
56. XYZ invested ₹1,68,000 in a business. After a few months, MNP joined in the business by investing ₹1,12,000 in the business. At the end of year, the total profit was divided between them in the ratio 2 : 1. After how many months, did MNP join the business?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 9
57. Which of the followings is a solution of the inequality 5x/3 ≤ x/6 – 5 ?
(A) (–∞, –10/3]
(B) (–∞, –10/3)
(C) (–∞, –8/3]
(D) (–∞, –8/3)
58. The number of solutions of (5 – 2x)/4 – (x/8) – 5 > 3 – 2x are ______, where x is a real number.
(A) Infinitely many
(B) Only two
(C) Exactly one
(D) No solution
59. The region specified by the inequalities 10x + 29y ≥ 40 and 15x – 4y ≤ 25 includes the point ________.
(A) (1, 1.25)
(B) (3, 2.5)
(C) (2.5, 2.5)
(D) (4, 1.25)
60. The roots of the equation ( (x/(x–1))² – 5(x/(x–1)) + 6 = 0 ) are:
(A) 2, 3/2
(B) 3, 1/2
(C) 2, 1/3
(D) 3, 2/3
61. If α and β are two roots of the equation 2x² – 6x + 3 = 0, then the equation with the roots (α/β) and (β/α) is _______.
(A) x² + 4x + 1 = 0
(B) x² – 4x + 1 = 0
(C) x² – 4x – 1 = 0
(D) x² + 4x – 1 = 0
62. A machine is depreciated at the rate of 15% on reducing balance. The original cost of the machine was ₹2,00,000. In approximately how many years, the value of the machine was ₹54,500? (Given : 0.85⁴ = 0.522)
(A) 9
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 7
63. Mohan invests ₹25,000 every year starting from today for next 5 years. Interest rate is 7% per annum compounded annually. The future value of the annuity is _______. (Given: (1+0.07)⁵ = 1.40255)
(A) 1,46,768
(B) 1,43,768
(C) 1,45,768
(D) 1,44,768
64. Mr. X borrowed ₹6,000 from Mr. Y at 10% per annum simple interest. After two years Mr. X wanted to repay this amount, Mr. Y insisted on paying the amount at compound interest at the same rate compounded annually. How much extra does Mr. X have to pay?
(A) ₹600
(B) ₹1,260
(C) ₹1,200
(D) ₹80
65. The compound interest on ₹1,00,000, compounded quarterly, for 9 months at the rate of 4% per annum is _______.
(A) 3,010.1
(B) 3,030.1
(C) 3,330.1
(D) 3,003.1
66. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum at 12% per annum for 2 years is ₹90, when the interest is compounded annually. Then the sum is ₹_____.
(A) 6,150
(B) 6,050
(C) 6,350
(D) 6,250
Q.67 If Mr. XYZ is investing ₹ 86,000 in a bank fixed deposit scheme where interest will be payable at 12% per annum, compounded half-yearly, what will be the effective rate of interest in a year?
(A) 12.36%
(B) 12.24%
(C) 12.12%
(D) 12.48%
Q.68 Ms. Y invested ₹ 2,00,000 in a mutual fund equity scheme. She redeemed entire investment after 96 months and received ₹ 6,00,000 after redemption. What was the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) in percentage?
(Given : 1.1472⁴ = 1.732)
(A) 14.72
(B) 15.72
(C) 13.72
(D) 12.72
Q.69 A loan of ₹ 5,000 is lent for three years at the rate of 10% per annum, compounded semi-annually. The future value of the money is ₹ ______.
(Given : 1.05⁶ = 1.34)
(A) 6,500
(B) 6,600
(C) 6,700
(D) 6,800
Q.70 If ₹ 2,470 is obtained as an interest in 4 years and 4 months at the rate of 3% per annum simple interest rate in bank deposit, how much amount was deposited in ₹ ?
(A) 17,000
(B) 18,000
(C) 19,000
(D) 20,000
Q.71 The compound interest of ₹ 4,900 is ₹ 1661 for 2 years at a certain rate of interest, compounded annually. What is the rate of interest per annum in percentage?
(A) 19.71
(B) 17.71
(C) 13.71
(D) 15.71
Q.72 You are interested in an investment of ₹ 5,000 in a fund that promises ₹ 50 at the end of each year, forever. What is the annual interest rate on this investment?
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 1.5%
(D) 2.5%
Q.73 An investment was priced at ₹ 100 per share in year 0, priced at ₹ 150 per share in the end of the first year, and priced ₹ 200 per share in the end of the second year. What is the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of the investment?
(A) 21.42%
(B) 31.42%
(C) 41.42%
(D) 51.42%
Q.74 How many different words from the letters of the word MATHEMATICS can be formed so that all the vowels always come together in any word?
(A) 10,080
(B) 1,20,960
(C) 49,89,600
(D) 20,160
Q.75 One person wants to have ₹ 20,000 at the end of six years. Hence, he deposits ₹ ______ (rounded in rupee) in a fund that pays 3% per annum, compounded annually.
(Given: 1.03⁶ = 1.194)
(A) 17,000
(B) 17,250
(C) 17,750
(D) 16,750
Q.76 Suppose you deposit ₹ 1,000 today, ₹ 2,000 after one year from today and ₹ 3,000 after two years from today, in a deposit that pays 10% per annum, compounded annually. What is the balance in the deposit at the end of two years i.e. just after deposit of ₹ 3,000?
(A) 6,000
(B) 6,410
(C) 6,600
(D) 6,800
77. Different words are made with rearrangement of letters of the word “TROPICAL” in a way that the vowels occupy odd places, when counted from left. How many such words are there?
(A) 720
(B) 1440
(C) 2880
(D) 2160
78. The common difference of the arithmetic progression 1/3, (1 – 3b)/3, (1 – 6b)/3, ….. is _______.
(A) –b
(B) b
(C) –3b
(D) 3b
79. If the numbers x, 2x + 2 and 3x + 3 are in the geometric progression, then the fourth term of the progression is _______.
(A) 27
(B) –27
(C) 13.5
(D) –13.5
80. Find n if nP5 = 20 nP3.
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
81. In a school, for a class monitor selection, there are 6 candidates, and students need to choose up to 3 monitors. A student can vote for 1 or 2 or 3 candidates. In how many ways a student can vote?
(A) 41
(B) 42
(C) 43
(D) 44
82. For a relation R, aRb represents that a is related to b. If for all a, b, c, aRb and bRc gives that aRc, then the relation is _______.
(A) Reflexive
(B) Symmetric
(C) Transitive
(D) Asymmetric
83. Let S = {a, b, c, d, e}. The number of non-empty proper subsets of S is _______.
(A) 30
(B) 31
(C) 32
(D) 28
84. If f(x) = 1/(1 + y) and g(y) = (y + 1)/y, then fog(y) = _______.
(A) y/(2y + 1)
(B) 2y/(1 + y)
(C) (2y + 1)/y
(D) (y + 1)/y
85. The sum of all natural numbers between 200 and 600 those are divisible by 13 is _______.
(A) 12493
(B) 14493
(C) 16493
(D) 18493
86. The sum of first two terms of a geometric progression is 14 and its infinite sum i.e. sum up to infinity is 32. What is the common ratio of the progression?
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.75
(C) 1.25
(D) 0.25
87. The cost function of an organization is given as C(x) = 500 – 5x² + (x³/3), where x denotes the output. Find the level of output at which marginal cost is the minimum.
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 10
(D) 6
90. The inverse of the function f(x) = (2 + 3x)/(x + 5), by taking f(x) as y, is _______.
(A) (2 + 5y)/(y + 3)
(B) (2 – 5y)/(y + 3)
(C) (2 – 5y)/(y – 3)
(D) (2 + 5y)/(y – 3)
91. Find dy/dx for x²y² + y = 0.
(A) dy/dx = –(2y²x) / (2yx² + 1)
(B) dy/dx = –(2y²x) / (2yx² + 1)
(C) dy/dx = (–2y²x + 1) / (–2yx²)
(D) dy/dx = (2y²x – 1) / (2yx²)
92. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT. How is DELHI coded in that language?
(A) EMFIJ
(B) EFM IJ
(C) EFMKJ
(D) EFJMI
93. In a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as I JCNMWP and MISRULE is written as OGUSSNC, then how will MUSICAL be written in that code?
(A) OSUJECN
(B) OSUHACJ
(C) OSUJACJ
(D) OSUJABJ
94. In the following series, one term is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
48, 50, 82, 170, 290
(A) 48
(B) 50
(C) 82
(D) 170
95. Complete the given series: 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, _____.
(A) 240
(B) 290
(C) 336
(D) 504
96. Find the odd one out in the series: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64.
(A) 17
(B) 26
(C) 37
(D) 64
97. Starting from point A, PQ walked 40 metres south. She turned left and walked 40 metres. She then turned left and walked 40 metres. She again turned left and walked 60 metres and reached point B. How far and in which direction is the point B from the point A?
(A) 20 metres West
(B) 20 metres East
(C) 30 metres West
(D) 10 metres West
98. Two persons, P and Q, start walking from a meeting point towards North. After walking 100 metres, P turns left and Q turns right. P, after walking 50 metres, takes a left turn and walks 150 metres. But Q walks 30 metres, turns to his right and walks 90 metres. What is the shortest distance between P and Q now in metres?
(A) 80
(B) 90
(C) 100
(D) 110
99. Suresh started walking 4 km west from his office. Then he turned right and walked 2 km. Again he turned right and walked 2 km to reach his house. In which direction is Suresh’s house from his office?
(A) South
(B) South-East
(C) North-West
(D) East
100. Mr. PQR walked 50 metres towards east, took a right turn and walked 40 metres. Then he took a left turn and walked 30 metres. In which direction is he now from the starting point?
(A) North-East
(B) East
(C) South-East
(D) South
Ruchika Ma'am has been a meritorious student throughout her student life. She is one of those who did not study from exam point of view or out of fear but because of the fact that she JUST LOVED STUDYING. When she says - love what you study, it has a deeper meaning.
She believes - "When you study, you get wise, you obtain knowledge. A knowledge that helps you in real life, in solving problems, finding opportunities. Implement what you study". She has a huge affinity for the Law Subject in particular and always encourages student to - "STUDY FROM THE BARE ACT, MAKE YOUR OWN INTERPRETATIONS". A rare practice that you will find in her video lectures as well.
She specializes in theory subjects - Law and Auditing.
Yash Sir (As students call him fondly) is not a teacher per se. He is a story teller who specializes in simplifying things, connecting the dots and building a story behind everything he teaches. A firm believer of Real Teaching, according to him - "Real Teaching is not teaching standard methods but giving the power to students to develop his own methods".
He cleared his CA Finals in May 2011 and has been into teaching since. He started teaching CA, CS, 11th, 12th, B.Com, M.Com students in an offline mode until 2016 when Konceptca was launched. One of the pioneers in Online Education, he believes in providing a learning experience which is NEAT, SMOOTH and AFFORDABLE.
He specializes in practical subjects – Accounting, Costing, Taxation, Financial Management. With over 12 years of teaching experience (Online as well as Offline), he SURELY KNOWS IT ALL.